A 52-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up a week after undergoing right breast partial mastectomy and right axillary sentinel lymph node biopsy. She was recently diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma after mammography detected a hyperdense lesion in the right breast. Vital signs are normal. The right breast and axilla have mild, but appropriate, swelling; incisions are clean and intact, without erythema. Surgical pathology reveals completely excised invasive ductal carcinoma; ductal carcinoma in situ is present at the specimen's lateral margin. The tumor is estrogen receptor-, progesterone receptor-, and HER2-negative. The axillary sentinel lymph node is negative for metastasis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's breast cancer?
A) Aromatase inhibitor therapy
B) MRI of the breast
C) Observation and repeat mammography in 6 months
D) Reexcision of the lateral margin
E) Right modified radical mastectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q280: A 40-year-old man comes to the office
Q281: A 36-year-old woman comes to the office
Q282: A 39-year-old woman who recently underwent thyroidectomy
Q283: A previously healthy, 36-year-old man is hospitalized
Q284: A 28-year-old woman is hospitalized following a
Q286: A 17-year-old boy is brought to the
Q287: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q288: A 33-year-old woman comes to the office
Q289: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q290: A 55-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents