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A 52-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for Follow-Up a Week

Question 285

Multiple Choice

A 52-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up a week after undergoing right breast partial mastectomy and right axillary sentinel lymph node biopsy.  She was recently diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma after mammography detected a hyperdense lesion in the right breast.  Vital signs are normal.  The right breast and axilla have mild, but appropriate, swelling; incisions are clean and intact, without erythema.  Surgical pathology reveals completely excised invasive ductal carcinoma; ductal carcinoma in situ is present at the specimen's lateral margin.  The tumor is estrogen receptor-, progesterone receptor-, and HER2-negative.  The axillary sentinel lymph node is negative for metastasis.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's breast cancer?


A) Aromatase inhibitor therapy
B) MRI of the breast
C) Observation and repeat mammography in 6 months
D) Reexcision of the lateral margin
E) Right modified radical mastectomy

Correct Answer:

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