A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for preoperative evaluation. The patient had been having intermittent headaches and sweating for several months. During that time, plasma metanephrines were found to be markedly elevated, and she underwent an abdominal CT scan that showed a 4.9 cm left adrenal mass. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Family history is unremarkable. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 136/84 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. Physical examination is normal. Surgical resection of the mass is scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preparation for surgery?
A) Administer a somatostatin analogue
B) Initiate alpha-adrenergic blockade
C) Initiate an ACE inhibitor
D) Initiate beta-adrenergic blockade
E) No pharmacologic intervention necessary
Correct Answer:
Verified
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