A 44-year-old-woman comes to the emergency department due to worsening abdominal pain. Two weeks ago, the patient underwent a laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for adenomyosis. Her postoperative course was unremarkable, and the patient went home the day after the procedure. She was eating normally until 2 days ago, when she began experiencing increasing nausea and abdominal cramping after meals. Now, the patient has abdominal cramping every few minutes and has vomited her pain medication. Her last bowel movement was 3 days ago, and she has not passed flatus today. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 34 kg/m2. The abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion. There is abdominal tenderness to palpation, but no rebound or guarding. The skin is intact over all the abdominal incisions, but the right-sided incision has an underlying tender, palpable mass. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Abdominal x-ray reveals multiple air-fluid levels within the small bowel and no air in the rectum. A nasogastric tube is placed. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal ultrasound
B) Barium enema
C) Bowel rest and serial abdominal examinations
D) Digital fecal disimpaction
E) Emergency laparotomy
F) Small bowel follow-through
Correct Answer:
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