A 50-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 months of progressive generalized weakness, anorexia, and abdominal distension. He has also had bilateral lower extremity swelling. The patient has a history of alcohol use disorder and liver cirrhosis, which was diagnosed 5 years ago. His last right upper quadrant ultrasound was performed 18 months ago; it showed surface nodularity and increased liver echogenicity but no free fluid in the abdomen. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F) , blood pressure is 103/76 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 14/min. Pulse oximetry shows 96% on room air. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented to time, place, and person. Temporal wasting is present. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal, and there is no jugular venous distension. The abdomen is distended, with shifting dullness to percussion, but nontender. There is bilateral lower extremity 1+ pitting edema. Palmar erythema and multiple spider angiomas are noted. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serology is negative for viral hepatitis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal ultrasound
B) Antimitochondrial antibodies
C) Diuretic therapy and follow-up in 2 weeks
D) Echocardiography
E) Lactulose with follow-up in 2 weeks
Correct Answer:
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