A 65-year-old woman comes to the office due to 4 weeks of progressive abdominal pain that is constant and worse with eating. It has caused her to eat less often, and she has noticed some weight loss. The patient has had several years of heartburn, which is relieved by over-the-counter medications. She has taken omeprazole for the last 4 weeks, but it has not improved the pain. The patient has a 10-pack-year smoking history but quit several years ago. She does not use alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness. Stool occult blood testing is negative. Complete blood count, liver studies, and serum chemistry are normal. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and reveals mild esophagitis but no gastritis. Abdominal ultrasound shows 2 large gallstones with no gallbladder wall thickening or pericholecystic fluid, and there is no ductal dilatation. The pancreas is poorly visualized due to overlying gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen
B) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C) HIDA scan
D) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
E) Mesenteric angiography
F) MR cholangiopancreatography
Correct Answer:
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