A 64-year-old man comes to the office due to urinary urgency, straining to urinate, a sensation of incomplete bladder evacuation, and frequent nocturia over the past several months. He has had no dysuria, fever, chills, abdominal or perineal pain, or penile discharge. The patient had similar symptoms in the past, which had improved after undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 5 years ago. He has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. There are no external genital lesions, and the perineal sensation is normal. Digital rectal examination shows normal anal sphincter tone and a nontender prostate. Urine dipstick is negative for blood, leukocyte esterase, or nitrites. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Chronic prostatic inflammation
C) Iatrogenic pudendal nerve injury
D) Neurogenic detrusor overactivity
E) Pelvic floor muscle dysfunction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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