A 65-year-old tennis player comes to the office due to worsening right heel pain for the past 4 weeks. In the last week, she had to end several practices early because the pain had become increasingly unbearable toward the end of the day. The patient has had no acute trauma to the foot. She has a history of osteopenia for which she takes calcium and vitamin D. On examination, there is significant tenderness over the medioplantar region of the right heel, worsened by passive dorsiflexion of the big toe. The ankle has full range of active motion without pain. Sensation of the foot is intact. Foot x-ray reveals a decrease in bone density and a calcaneal bone spur but no fracture. Which of the following is the best initial treatment of the patient's condition?
A) Corticosteroid injection
B) Endoscopic fasciotomy
C) Over-the-counter heel inserts
D) Short leg cast for 6 weeks
E) Surgical removal of bone spur
Correct Answer:
Verified
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