A 12-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother for evaluation of leg pain. The patient first noticed a dull ache in her left thigh a month ago. The pain is intermittent, worse after skipping rope with friends, and typically resolves after rest or ibuprofen. She does not recall any inciting injury to the leg. Prior to last month, the patient had never experienced any similar pain. Medical history is unremarkable. She takes no medications. Family history is notable for sickle cell disease. Temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F) . BMI is at the 97th percentile for age. The abdomen is soft with no hepatosplenomegaly. A few soft, nontender, mobile, 1-cm inguinal lymph nodes are palpable bilaterally. Skin examination reveals a few small, healing abrasions over the bilateral anterior knees. The left hip demonstrates decreased range of motion with internal rotation. There is no increased warmth over the joint. The left foot points laterally during ambulation. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Bacterial infection of the joint space
B) Expansion of malignant cells in bone marrow
C) Shearing at the proximal femoral physis
D) Transient intraarticular inflammation
E) Vasoocclusion from intravascular red cell sickling
Correct Answer:
Verified
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