A 44-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up after being evaluated in the emergency department for a shoulder injury. Two weeks ago, the patient fell on an outstretched hand at work; x-ray in the hospital showed a posterior glenohumeral dislocation without fracture. The dislocation was reduced successfully under procedural sedation, and the arm was placed in a sling. The patient was advised to follow up with the outpatient provider in 2 weeks. Since the injury, he has been unable to abduct the arm without severe pain and difficulty. He has no medical history and takes no medications regularly. On examination, the patient has no shoulder numbness but has limited abduction due to pain. Distal pulses and sensation are intact. There is no shoulder asymmetry. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Adhesive capsulitis
B) Avascular necrosis of the humeral head
C) Axillary nerve injury
D) Recurrent dislocation
E) Rotator cuff injury
Correct Answer:
Verified
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