A 27-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the office due to left pelvic pain over the past 8 months. She has constant pelvic pressure exacerbated by exercise and sexual activity. The patient stopped taking combined oral contraceptives 2 years ago with the intention of having children but has not yet conceived. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The patient's menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 27 days with 4 days of bleeding. She was treated for trichomoniasis at age 20. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a normal-sized uterus with no abnormal cervical discharge. Bimanual examination reveals left adnexal tenderness. A unilocular mass with homogeneous, low-level echoes on the left ovary is seen on ultrasound. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Endometriosis
B) Epithelial ovarian cancer
C) Mature teratoma
D) Pedunculated leiomyoma
E) Pelvic congestion syndrome
F) Tuboovarian abscess
Correct Answer:
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