A 19-year-old woman comes to the office for a routine physical examination. She feels well and has no concerns. The patient has had 2 sexual partners in the past 3 months and uses condoms for contraception. She has no significant medical history, takes no medications, and has no drug allergies. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia. The cervix has no lesions, abnormal discharge, or friability. On bimanual examination, the uterus is small and mobile and has no cervical motion or fundal tenderness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. A cervical swab sent for nucleic acid amplification testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis but negative for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The patient is still asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Ceftriaxone and doxycycline
B) Ceftriaxone only
C) Doxycycline only
D) Reassurance and no treatment at this time
E) Repeat test for confirmation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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