A 29-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation comes to the office for a prenatal visit. The patient feels some pelvic pressure but has no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She completed a course of antibiotics at 10 weeks gestation after a urine culture grew ≥100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli. The patient has had some urinary frequency but no dysuria, urgency, or hematuria. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Temperature is 98.6 F (37 C) , blood pressure is 96/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Fetal heart rate is 170/min on Doppler ultrasound. The uterus is nontender and palpable just above the pubic symphysis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Daily antibiotic suppression
B) Postvoid residual volume test
C) Repeat urine culture
D) Routine prenatal care only
E) Voiding cystourethrogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
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