A 38-year-old woman at 6 weeks gestation comes to the office due to vaginal bleeding. The patient has had intermittent bleeding for the past week, which increases after intercourse. She has had no pelvic pain, nausea, or vomiting. Blood pressure is 124/68 mm Hg and pulse is 86/min. The abdomen is soft and nontender, without rebound or guarding. On pelvic examination, there is dark brown discharge pooling in the posterior vaginal vault. The cervix is closed, and there is a raised cervical mass that bleeds freely when manipulated with a swab. Ultrasound reveals a yolk sac and a 6-week intrauterine fetal pole with cardiac motion. Blood type is O, Rh positive. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
B) Cervical biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Expectant management only
E) Kleihauer-Betke test
F) Quantitative β-hCG level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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