A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of nipple discharge. The patient has had bilateral yellow nipple discharge for the past month. She has gained 5 lb (2.3 kg) in the past year. The patient has had no missed menses, and her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She takes sertraline for anxiety and depression. The patient's mother had breast cancer at age 59. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. BMI is 29 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg and pulse is 78 /min. On examination, there is dense breast tissue with no palpable dominant masses. The breasts are nontender and the nipples have bilateral white-yellow crusting. There is no axillary or clavicular lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Bilateral core needle biopsies
B) Cytology of the discharge
C) Discontinue sertraline
D) Mammography
E) MRI of the pituitary
F) No additional management indicated
Correct Answer:
Verified
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