Six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery, a 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the emergency department due to left breast pain. The patient first noticed pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. She has continued to breast feed her infant from the unaffected breast. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) . Physical examination shows an area of erythema extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast and surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance. Axillary lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Breast binding and acetaminophen
B) Core needle and skin punch biopsies
C) Ice packs and use of a supportive bra
D) Needle aspiration and antibiotics
E) Warm compresses and massage
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q74: A 37-year-old woman comes to the office
Q75: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q76: A 60-year-old woman comes to the office
Q77: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Q78: A 16-year-old girl comes to the office
Q80: A 41-year-old woman comes to the office
Q81: A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q82: A 16-year-old girl is brought to the
Q83: A 42-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q84: A 29-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents