A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office for evaluation of increasing malaise. The patient has been exclusively breastfeeding her 3-month-old infant. For the past week, she has been taking dicloxacillin due to redness and pain in her right breast. Over the past few days, the patient has developed increasing malaise and a low appetite. She has had no nausea, diarrhea, or headache. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no other daily medications. Her mother had breast cancer at age 54. Temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F) , blood pressure is 124/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Both breasts have moderate engorgement. There is linear nipple cracking bilaterally. The right breast has tender nodularity, but the erythema has improved since last week's examination. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Add fluconazole therapy
B) Add topical corticosteroids
C) Change antibiotics to cephalexin
D) Order breast ultrasound
E) Perform full-thickness skin biopsy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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