A 38-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of cervical dysplasia. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a tubal ligation after the birth of her second child. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Last month, routine cervical cancer screening revealed a high-grade squamous epithelial lesion. She then underwent a colposcopy, which confirmed high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 3. Cervical conization was performed. The pathology report shows CIN 3 with all surgical margins free of disease. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Endocervical curettage
B) Hysterectomy
C) No further Pap testing
D) Pap and HPV cotesting at 1 and 2 years
E) Pap testing alone in 3 years
Correct Answer:
Verified
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