A 46-year-old woman comes to the office due to fecal incontinence. For the past several years, the patient has had fecal incontinence a few times per year. However, over the past year, it has worsened and now occurs once or twice a week, with leakage of liquid fecal material and a small amount of diarrhea. The patient has a formed bowel movement once a day. She has tried to change her diet, increasing dietary fiber and avoiding dairy products, but has had no improvement in her symptoms. The patient takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus, and her last hemoglobin A1c was 7.2%. She has had 2 vaginal deliveries and no surgeries. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender and has normoactive bowel sounds. There is a moderate amount of soft stool in the rectal vault, and anal sphincter tone is decreased. Deep tendon reflexes and sensation are intact in the bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Chronic fecal impaction
B) Decreased rectal compliance
C) External anal sphincter injury
D) Medication side effect
E) Reduced internal anal sphincter sensation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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