A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of vaginal discharge. For the past few days, the patient has had pink-tinged vaginal discharge, requiring her to wear a menstrual pad. She has had associated pelvic cramping, which has improved with ibuprofen. A week ago, the patient underwent a uterine artery embolization for symptomatic uterine fibroids. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and without rebound or guarding. There is diffuse pelvic discomfort to deep palpation. On pelvic examination, there is profuse, blood-tinged, watery vaginal discharge. Wet mount microscopy shows multiple leukocytes, but no clue cells, pseudohyphae, or trichomonads. Complete blood count results are as follows:
Urine pregnancy testing is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Blood and endometrial cultures
B) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D) Emergency hysterectomy
E) Expectant management
Correct Answer:
Verified
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