A 70-year-old woman comes to the office due to vulvar pruritus. The patient has had increasing pruritus over the past 4 months that has not improved with topical emollients. She has no pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, or abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient had similar symptoms 20 years ago, for which she was prescribed a corticosteroid cream that resolved the symptoms. She has not been sexually active for the last 10 years. The patient has hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her last Pap test with HPV cotesting was normal 5 years ago. Blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. On pelvic examination, there is a firm, white plaque with overlying excoriations on the left labium majus. Mild atrophy of the bilateral labia minora is noted, and the vagina has minimal rugation but no lesions. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) High-dose topical corticosteroids
B) Laser ablative therapy
C) Oral antifungal medication
D) Topical estrogen cream
E) Trichloroacetic acid therapy
F) Vulvar biopsy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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