A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 8 weeks gestation comes to the physician to initiate prenatal care. Her blood type is O negative and the father's blood type is O positive. Her first pregnancy was significant for placental abruption at the time of delivery. She received the standard dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks during her first pregnancy and again 1 day postpartum. The patient has no medical problems and no history of blood transfusions. Her anti-D antibody titer is currently 1:32. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's finding?
A) Inadequate dose of anti-D immune globulin after her first delivery
B) Inadequate dose of anti-D immune globulin during her first pregnancy
C) No anti-D immune globulin prophylaxis between the pregnancies
D) Premature administration of anti-D immune globulin after her first pregnancy
E) Undisclosed new paternity during this pregnancy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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