A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to postcoital bleeding for the past week. She has had 3 new male sexual partners over the last 6 months and uses condoms inconsistently. The patient has mild, persistent asthma for which she takes low-dose, inhaled glucocorticoids. She is also taking oral contraceptives, and her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Vital signs are normal. Pelvic examination shows a thin, malodorous vaginal discharge and erythema of the vulva and vaginal mucosa. The cervix is erythematous and has multiple macular lesions that easily bleed when probed with a cotton swab. Wet mount microscopy of the discharge shows motile, ovoid-shaped organisms. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Acyclovir
B) Boric acid
C) Clindamycin
D) Doxycycline
E) Fluconazole
F) Metronidazole
G) Penicillin G benzathine
Correct Answer:
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