A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 39 weeks gestation comes to the hospital for a scheduled elective induction. She has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for a positive group B Streptococcus (GBS) rectovaginal culture at 36 weeks gestation with resistance to erythromycin. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no prior surgeries. She developed a nonpruritic maculopapular rash after taking penicillin in her 20s. Vital signs are normal. Abdomen is soft, gravid, and nontender. The cervix is 1 cm dilated and 60% effaced with the fetal vertex at -2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Given this patient's penicillin allergy, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A) Cefazolin
B) Clindamycin
C) No treatment indicated
D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E) Vancomycin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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