A 35-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 3, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the hospital due to leakage of fluid and painful contractions. The patient has had continuous vaginal leakage of clear fluid for the past 2 days and now the fluid appears green. Her prior 3 pregnancies were uncomplicated term vaginal deliveries, and she has not received prenatal care with this pregnancy. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and no known drug allergies. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Speculum examination shows a pool of meconium-stained fluid in the posterior fornix of the vagina. The cervix is 6 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and the fetal vertex is at +1 station. Fetal heart tracing reveals moderate variability and early decelerations with each contraction. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioinfusion
B) Cesarean delivery
C) Expectant management only
D) Labor augmentation
E) Penicillin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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