A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has had an uncomplicated prenatal course with normal prenatal laboratory results, including a negative urine culture during the first trimester. She feels well and has had no contractions, leakage of fluid, or vaginal bleeding. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or medication allergies. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination, including fetal heart tones, is normal. At the end of the visit, the patient mentions that her niece recently died from neonatal group B streptococcal infection after preterm delivery at 36 weeks gestation and she is afraid that this could happen to her baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient?
A) "Given your family history, I will administer prophylactic antibiotics during your labor."
B) "I understand your concern, but this disease cannot be predicted in the antepartum period."
C) "I will check for the presence of this bacterium 3-5 weeks before your expected delivery date."
D) "This disease typically affects preterm infants, so you will need antibiotics only if you develop preterm labor."
E) "We should perform a rectovaginal culture now to determine your carrier status."
Correct Answer:
Verified
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