A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 14 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient has had no vaginal bleeding, pelvic pain, or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her first 2 pregnancies ended at 22 weeks gestation; both deliveries occurred after light vaginal spotting followed by a precipitous, nonpainful vaginal delivery. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or prior surgeries. Her only medication is a prenatal vitamin. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Fetal heart tones are 160/min. Ultrasound reveals a single intrauterine fetus measuring 14 weeks gestation, a cervical length of 2.9 cm (normal: >2.5) , and no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Cerclage placement
C) Fetal fibronectin testing
D) Pessary placement
E) Routine prenatal care only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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