A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on the postpartum floor due to a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that occurred 30 hours after a vaginal delivery. The patient was induced at 37 weeks gestation for preeclampsia with severe features via an oxytocin infusion for 48 hours. She also received magnesium sulfate for maternal seizure prophylaxis, which was discontinued 24 hours after delivery. The patient had a spontaneous vaginal delivery complicated by a postpartum hemorrhage that was treated with bimanual uterine massage and an oxytocin bolus and infusion. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.7 F) , blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows a lethargic patient with no focal neurologic deficits. Laboratory results on serum drawn immediately after the seizure are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's seizure?
A) Acute blood loss anemia
B) Alcohol withdrawal
C) Intracerebral hemorrhage
D) Magnesium sulfate toxicity
E) Oxytocin side effect
Correct Answer:
Verified
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