A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the labor and delivery unit for contractions. Her contractions started this morning and now are painful and occur every 5 minutes. The patient has had no leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement is normal. Previous pregnancies ended in uncomplicated term vaginal deliveries. The patient was diagnosed with HIV at her first prenatal visit during this pregnancy, and her viral load one week ago was 12,300 copies/mL. She does not always take her combination antiretroviral therapy but takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg and pulse is 98/min. The patient is tolerating labor well, and the uterus is soft and nontender between contractions. The fetal heart rate tracing is shown in the exhibit.
The cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced and the fetal vertex is at 0 station. The amniotic sac is tense and palpable. In addition to starting zidovudine, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniotomy
B) Cesarean delivery
C) Expectant management
D) Misoprostol (prostaglandin E1)
E) Oxytocin
Correct Answer:
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