A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on postoperative day 1 for difficulty walking. Yesterday, the patient underwent a prolonged induction of labor for poorly controlled gestational diabetes mellitus and suspected fetal macrosomia at 39 weeks gestation. Epidural analgesia was placed during labor, and she required multiple epidural boluses and epidural replacement for adequate pain control. The patient pushed for 3 hours with minimal fetal descent, and a forceps-assisted delivery was attempted but failed. She then underwent a cesarean delivery via Pfannenstiel incision. Today, while attempting to walk to the bathroom, the patient almost fell and has been unable to ambulate without assistance. On examination, the Pfannenstiel incision is intact and mildly tender. The right patellar reflex is 2+ and the left 1+. Sensation is diminished on the left anterior and medial thigh, and there is weakness on knee extension. The remainder of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Hyperflexion of the hips during the second stage of labor
B) Improper placement of the epidural analgesia
C) Nerve transection with cesarean delivery incision
D) Pelvic injury from attempted forceps-assisted delivery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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