A 29-year-old primigravid woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the office for evaluation of decreased fetal movement. The patient has had minimal fetal movement for the past few hours. She has had no vaginal bleeding or contractions. The patient has sickle cell disease and is taking low-dose aspirin. Her pregnancy is dated by a 10-week ultrasound, and she had a normal fetal anatomy ultrasound at 18 weeks gestation. At 24 weeks gestation, the patient had an abnormal glucose challenge test, but a normal glucose tolerance test. Blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg and pulse is 90/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is 140/min. Fundal height is 26 cm. Ultrasound reveals a cephalic male fetus measuring at the 16th percentile and an amniotic fluid index of 4 cm (normal: >5 cm) . Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Fetal congenital infection
B) Inaccurate pregnancy dating
C) Maternal obesity
D) Pregnancy-induced hyperglycemia
E) Uteroplacental insufficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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