A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on the postpartum floor for fever. The patient awoke this morning with fever, chills, and increasing abdominal pain. She is passing flatus and has no nausea. Two days ago, the patient was in active labor, developed prolonged fetal bradycardia, and was rushed to the operating room for an emergency cesarean delivery under general anesthesia. The fetus was delivered with Apgar scores of 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. The patient was unable to void on the first postoperative day, so the Foley catheter was replaced and is continuing to drain. The patient developed a fever this morning, and now her temperature is 38.4 C (101.1 F) . Bilateral breasts are engorged, tender, and have no erythema. The uterine fundus is nontender and palpable at the umbilicus. The skin overlying the incision is intact and has induration and erythema extending to the mons pubis. There are no palpable abdominal masses, rebound, or guarding. A Foley catheter is draining blood-tinged urine. Urinalysis shows trace blood, negative leukocyte esterase, and negative nitrites. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Bacterial contamination of the incision
B) Bladder infection from catheter-introduced bacteriuria
C) Injury, thrombus, and infection of the pelvic veins
D) Obstruction, inflammation, and infection of the breast ducts
E) Polymicrobial infection of the uterine decidua
Correct Answer:
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