A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on the postpartum floor due to increased perineal pain. The patient underwent a spontaneous vaginal delivery 8 hours ago after pushing for 3 hours. She had a second-degree perineal laceration repaired immediately after delivery. For the past 30 minutes, the patient has had increasing perineal pain, particularly with voiding. Temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F) , blood pressure is 132/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. On abdominal examination, there is no rebound or guarding and the uterus is firm and palpable below the umbilicus. The patient's pad contains a small amount of dark red blood, and no clots are expressed with uterine massage. The perineum and labia majora are edematous. The laceration repair appears intact with no purulent drainage but is tender to palpation. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
B) Exploratory laparotomy
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and supportive care only
D) Removal of suture
E) Surgical perineal debridement
Correct Answer:
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