A 20-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, is evaluated in the postpartum unit 8 hours after vaginal delivery. She is experiencing fatigue, perineal discomfort, and bloody vaginal discharge. The patient has voided 3 times since delivery. She was admitted to the hospital for rupture of membranes at 40 weeks gestation and, after a prolonged induction, had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery under epidural anesthesia with a second-degree laceration that was immediately repaired. The placenta delivered spontaneously, after which the patient had an episode of rigors and chills for 30 minutes that has not recurred. Estimated delivery-related blood loss was 300 mL; the patient received an oxytocin infusion for 4 hours after delivery. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Pelvic examination shows an intact perineal repair with minimal bloody discharge and small blood clots on the perineal pad. The uterine fundus is firm, nontender, and palpable at the umbilicus. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Oxytocin infusion
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Routine postpartum care only
E) Urinalysis and urine culture
Correct Answer:
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