A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. She had a positive home pregnancy test 2 weeks ago and started taking a daily prenatal vitamin at that time. The patient had some light vaginal bleeding 3 weeks ago, which has resolved. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or pelvic pain. The patient was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at age 5 and is on an insulin pump. She has no other chronic medical conditions. Blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows an enlarged uterus and a closed cervix. Ultrasound shows a twin intrauterine gestation; both twins measure at 7 weeks gestation and have normal heart rates. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour urine collection for total protein
B) Cerclage placement
C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D) Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone
E) Quantitative β-hCG level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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