A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office 2 weeks after a spontaneous vaginal delivery for evaluation of urinary leakage. Since delivery, the patient has had leaking of urine in small amounts 5-6 times daily. She sometimes does not feel the urge to urinate despite a good appetite and frequent hydration. The patient has no dysuria or hematuria. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Temperature is 98.8 F (37.1 C) , blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. The uterus is firm, nontender, and extends 2 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. There is urethral leakage of urine with Valsalva maneuver, but no urine in the vaginal vault. A postvoid residual is normal. The perineum is intact and there is scant lochia. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Bladder dye test
B) Continence pessary
C) Midurethral sling procedure
D) Mirabegron therapy
E) Observation and reassurance
Correct Answer:
Verified
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