A 30 year-old-woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 29 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. She reports increasing fatigue, shortness of breath with exertion, and bilateral leg swelling over the past few weeks. The patient has had no vaginal bleeding, contractions, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. Her initial prenatal visit was at 10 weeks gestation, and results of a complete blood count at that time were as follows:
Today, blood pressure is 124/84 mm Hg, pulse is 77/min, and respirations are 22/min. Cardiac examination is normal, and the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Fundal height is 29 cm and fetal heart rate is 160/min. Bilateral lower extremities have 2+ pitting edema up to the knees. Results of a complete blood count today are as follows:
Third-trimester HIV and syphilis tests are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A) 24-hour urine protein collection
B) Antinuclear antibody titers
C) Coagulation studies
D) Reassurance and observation
E) Von Willebrand factor activity level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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