A 35-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 35 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit for fever and chills. Three days ago, she was admitted for acute pyelonephritis and started on broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics. The patient continues to have a fever and developed chills an hour ago. She has had no painful contractions, leakage of fluid, or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement is normal. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 118/64 mm Hg, and pulse is 112/min. Fetal heart rate monitoring is 180/min with moderate variability, multiple accelerations, and no decelerations. Tocometry reveals irregular contractions. There is tenderness over the right flank. On pelvic examination, the cervix is 1 cm dilated and 25% effaced. Amniotic membranes are intact, and the fetal presentation is vertex. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniocentesis and amniotic fluid culture
B) Emergency cesarean delivery
C) Renal ultrasound
D) Terbutaline tocolysis
E) Voiding cystourethrogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
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