A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of dysuria and hematuria. For the past 3 days, the patient has had burning with urination and blood-tinged urine. She has had no fever, involuntary loss of urine, or postvoid dribbling. The patient has no bladder pain between voidings. She has had similar episodes for the past 6 months, starting a few days prior to menses. The symptoms usually resolve spontaneously, and she is asymptomatic for a few weeks before symptoms recur. The patient has no other medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. BMI is 21 kg/m2. The lower abdomen is slightly tender to palpation with no rebound or guarding. There is no costovertebral angle or flank tenderness. On pelvic examination, the bladder is tender to palpation of the anterior vaginal wall. There is no urethral discharge. Urinalysis results are as follows:
Urine culture is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Endometriosis
B) Interstitial cystitis
C) Nephrolithiasis
D) Recurrent urinary tract infection
E) Urethral diverticulum
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q440: A 35-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q441: A 39-year-old woman comes to the office
Q442: A 26-year-old primigravid patient at 8 weeks
Q443: A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q444: A 19-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q446: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q447: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q448: A 37-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q449: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0
Q450: A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents