A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on the postpartum floor due to fluid leakage from her incision. Two days ago, the patient underwent a cesarean delivery after failed induction of labor and intraamniotic infection. She had her incision bandage removed this morning with minimal clear fluid on the bandage. The patient then walked to the nursery, where she noticed that serosanguineous fluid had stained her hospital gown. Fluid has continued to drain from her abdominal incision. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) . BMI is 35 kg/m2. The uterus is palpable below the umbilicus and has no fundal tenderness. The Pfannenstiel incision has a 4-cm defect at the right corner that is draining scant serosanguineous fluid. There is no surrounding erythema or induration. The subcutaneous tissue has no areas of necrosis or crepitus, and the rectus fascia is intact. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B) Emergency surgical exploration
C) Regular dressing changes only
D) Systemic antibiotics and wound debridement
E) Topical antibiotics and abdominal binder placement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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