A 39-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient conceived via in vitro fertilization; her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Expectant management and spontaneous vaginal delivery
B) Intrauterine pressure catheter and amnioinfusion
C) Laparotomy and cesarean delivery
D) Operative vaginal delivery
E) Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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