A 42-year-old woman comes to the office after a positive home pregnancy test. The patient has a history of irregular menses and had a positive home pregnancy test after she went 6 months without a menstrual period. Her medical conditions include chronic hypertension, for which she takes multiple medications, and type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which she stopped taking metformin a few months ago due to side effects. BMI is 38 kg/m2. Temperature is 37.6 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 138/88 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. The abdomen is soft and without rebound or guarding. The uterus is nontender and fundal height measures 24 cm. Ultrasound findings show a singleton fetus at 24 weeks gestation with bilateral small, underdeveloped kidneys and a bladder with minimal urine. The amniotic fluid index is 4 cm (normal: >5 cm) . Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fetal presentation?
A) Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
B) Chromosomal aneuploidy
C) Medication exposure
D) Posterior urethral valves
E) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
F) Vesicoureteral reflux
Correct Answer:
Verified
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