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A 32-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Para 0, Comes to the Office

Question 457

Multiple Choice

A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit after a positive home pregnancy test.  The patient has had some nausea and breast tenderness but no abdominal cramping or vaginal bleeding.  Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago; prior to conception she had regular, monthly menstrual cycles with 5 or 6 days of heavy bleeding.  During the first 2 days of her menses, the patient had painful cramping, particularly after stopping her oral contraceptives last year.  She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin.  The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Bimanual pelvic examination shows a 15-week-size, mobile uterus with an irregular contour.  Urine pregnancy test is positive.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's uterine size-date discrepancy?


A) Adenomyosis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Endometriosis
D) Hydatidiform mole
E) Incorrect dating
F) Leiomyomata uteri
G) Multiple gestation

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