A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit after a positive home pregnancy test. The patient has had some nausea and breast tenderness but no abdominal cramping or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago; prior to conception she had regular, monthly menstrual cycles with 5 or 6 days of heavy bleeding. During the first 2 days of her menses, the patient had painful cramping, particularly after stopping her oral contraceptives last year. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Bimanual pelvic examination shows a 15-week-size, mobile uterus with an irregular contour. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's uterine size-date discrepancy?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Endometriosis
D) Hydatidiform mole
E) Incorrect dating
F) Leiomyomata uteri
G) Multiple gestation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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