A 32-year-old woman at 14 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal care visit. She has had no headaches, chest pain, abdominal pain, or lower extremity swelling. Medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with multiple daily insulin injections. Blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg and pulse is 86/min. Fetal heart tones are 152/min on Doppler ultrasonography. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein but no red or white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely direct cause of this patient's proteinuria?
A) Diabetic nephropathy
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Physiologic changes of pregnancy
D) Preeclampsia
E) Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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