A 68-year-old man is hospitalized after coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. The patient has a history of coronary artery disease treated with stenting of the right coronary artery several years ago. Medical history also includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Over the past 6 months, the patient has had worsening angina, and cardiac catheterization revealed 80% stenosis of the left main artery and restenosis of the right coronary artery. Echocardiography showed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% with no valvular abnormalities. A 2-vessel coronary artery bypass grafting with a left internal mammary to the left anterior descending artery and a saphenous vein graft to the right coronary artery was performed. The intraoperative course was uncomplicated, and the patient was extubated 24 hours later. On the third postoperative day, the patient developed atrial fibrillation. He is hemodynamically stable with adequate urine output and good control of the postoperative pain. Serum electrolytes are within normal limits. The patient becomes concerned about the postoperative arrhythmia. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about this patient's atrial fibrillation?
A) It is likely due to reperfusion and intravenous magnesium should help.
B) It is likely ischemia related and further testing is needed to ensure graft patency.
C) It is likely to resolve only with cardioversion and there is low risk of recurrence.
D) It is likely to spontaneously convert to sinus rhythm within a few days.
E) It is unlikely to cause significant postoperative complications.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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