A 34-year-old woman comes to the office due to intermittent palpitations for 2 weeks. The patient has no chest pain or shortness of breath. She was diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 10 years ago and hypothyroidism 5 years ago. The patient takes metoprolol and levothyroxine. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min and regular, and respirations are 15/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Mucous membranes are moist. Jugular venous pressure is normal. The thyroid gland is symmetrically enlarged and nontender. The lungs are clear to auscultation. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard best at the left sternal border. Complete blood count and serum chemistries are normal. Serum TSH concentration is 1.4 μU/mL. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with T-wave inversions in the anterior leads, unchanged from 6 months ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Addition of verapamil and reassurance
B) Ambulatory ECG monitoring
C) Coronary angiography
D) CT pulmonary angiography
E) Serum free thyroxine concentration
Correct Answer:
Verified
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