A 70-year-old man comes to the office due to a skin rash. He has widespread redness and blistering across his neck and trunk, which are associated with severe itching. The rash was preceded by 4 weeks of widespread pruritus and occasional urticaria. The patient has a history of hypertension controlled with amlodipine for 2 years and lisinopril for the last 6 months. Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, he has scattered vesicles and bullae with underlying erythema and urticaria, as shown in the image below:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's condition?
A) Discontinuation of lisinopril and follow-up in 5-7 days
B) Oral prednisone and follow-up in 3-4 days
C) Oral valacyclovir for 10 days
D) Skin biopsy
E) Topical triamcinolone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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