A 76-year-old woman with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, and atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up visit. The patient says, "I feel exhausted all the time, and my feet are often swollen at the end of the day. I have also gained several pounds over the past 3 months." She has had no chest pain, dyspnea, orthopnea, or dizziness. Her medications include low-dose aspirin, metoprolol, lisinopril, furosemide, metformin, insulin glargine, and a daily multivitamin supplement. The patient underwent electrical cardioversion for persistent atrial fibrillation 6 months ago and has since been taking amiodarone. Two months ago, anticoagulation was discontinued due to recurrent falls related to gait disturbance from diabetic neuropathy. Blood pressure is 134/70 mm Hg with no postural changes, pulse is 58/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Weight is 77 kg (170 lb) , which is 4.5 kg (10 lb) more than her recorded weight a few months ago. With the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees, the jugular venous pressure is 2 cm above the sternal angle. Hepatojugular reflux is absent. Lung fields are clear to auscultation. Trace edema is noted at the ankles. Decreased vibratory and light touch sensation is present in the distal lower extremities. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL, sodium is 132 mEq/L, and potassium is 3.7 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
B) Check B-type natriuretic peptide level
C) Check TSH level
D) Discontinue the amiodarone
E) Increase the dose of furosemide
Correct Answer:
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