A 22-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss initiating oral contraception. She has been sexually active with the same partner for the last year and has been using condoms but would like a more reliable method of contraception. The patient has a 4-year history of primary hypothyroidism, which has been well controlled on 125 µg/day of levothyroxine. Her most recent serum TSH was within normal limits. She has no other chronic medical conditions and no previous surgeries. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is significant for breast cancer in her mother diagnosed at age 52 and a sister who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. There is no thyromegaly, and the remainder of the physical examination is normal. The patient states that her best friend noted an improvement in her acne after starting an oral contraceptive, and she would like to take the same type of pill. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding contraception in this patient?
A) Patients with hypothyroidism should not take oral contraceptives due to the excessive risk of venous thromboembolism.
B) Progestin-only pills are the most effective oral contraceptive in patients with hypothyroidism.
C) The dose of estrogen in the oral contraceptive might need to be higher for a patient with hypothyroidism.
D) The levothyroxine dose might need to be decreased due to interaction with the oral contraceptive.
E) The levothyroxine dose might need to be increased due to the effects of the combined oral contraceptive.
Correct Answer:
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