A 28-year-old woman comes to the office with 2 days of vaginal spotting. The patient has no fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or cramping. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she had a positive home pregnancy test yesterday. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. She is sexually active with a new male partner and uses condoms for contraception. The patient previously used a copper intrauterine device for contraception but had it removed due to increased pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. Recent nucleic acid amplification testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea was negative. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 81/min. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no guarding or rebound. Pelvic examination reveals dark red blood in the posterior vaginal fornix and a closed cervix. On bimanual examination, there is mild left adnexal tenderness with fullness but no cervical motion tenderness. The uterus is small and nontender. Quantitative β-hCG is 3,700 IU/L. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 4.6-cm left adnexal complex mass and a thickened endometrium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Corpus luteum cyst
B) Early pregnancy of unknown location
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Implantation bleeding
E) Threatened abortion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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