A 2-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of persistent watery diarrhea. Five days ago, the patient began having watery diarrhea and vomiting multiple times throughout the day. The vomiting resolved within 24 hours, but the patient has since refused to eat her normal meals because of nausea, preferring to drink apple and pear juice throughout the day. She has had large, watery stools 4 or 5 times a day with no visible blood and she passes gas frequently, but she has no diarrhea overnight. The patient takes no medications and has no allergies. Immunizations are up to date. Family history is significant for celiac disease in her mother and maternal grandmother. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Height is 85 cm (33.5 in, 50th percentile) and weight is 10.8 kg (23.8 lb, 40th percentile) , down 1 kg (2.2 lb) from her well-child visit a month ago. The lips appear dry but the oral mucosa is moist and has no oral lesions. Auscultation reveals hyperactive bowel sounds. The abdomen is mildly tender to palpation in all quadrants, but there is no rebound or guarding. Skin examination shows perianal erythema and irritation but no jaundice or other abnormalities. Capillary refill is brisk. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Begin empiric antibiotic therapy
B) Evaluate stool for protein and fat malabsorption
C) Order tissue transglutaminase IgA
D) Provide reassurance with no additional intervention
E) Recommend discontinuing fruit juice consumption
Correct Answer:
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